[blindLaw] Understanding American Judicial Stance on Treating Libel and Slander

Thomas Dukeman ThomasDukeman at outlook.com
Tue Nov 15 14:53:23 UTC 2022


Hello Blind law,

I have a question about how libel and/or slander work in the US. It got covered in my business law class but I feel this might be more of a constitutional law question instead. I recall that because the Freedom of Speech clause of the 1st Amendment to the US Constitution and that it is mostly the reason why Libel and Slander cases are very hard to find a legal basis for standing in the first place. I do not know how high it went but I am talking about the legal case the state of Texas raised against Alex Jones over his remarks regarding the tragic Sandy Hook shooting on Libel/Slander. The court found him liable and now I know in America we are allowed to appeal to an appellate court for a review of the case if we do not feel it was judged fairly or judicial procedure was not adequately observed and followed. My question is if he has already appealed and the decision affirmed, is there any legal recourse if he then goes on to claim the case that has already been decided and found to have been performed on a legally sound basis was not and that it feels that he is being unfairly persecuted. I am not bringing this up as a political issue but something I feel I need a better understanding of legally because it is something the US has always struggled with and are bound to see more of it in the future.

Thanks for your time to help,
Tom

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