[Faith-talk] A Historical Bible Question, If I May Post It

[Penny Golden]

Hi. I teach grammar and teach the capitalization of pronouns referring 
to God.  But as early as the sermons of Charles Spurgeon, these pronouns 
are not capitalized.  In his writing, he just puts in the pronouns. he 
died, incidentally, in 1892.
Most people who have a reverence for God capitalize pronouns referring 
to His name.  But the modern practice is, more and more, to do away with 
such capitalization.  However, I'm not convinced and still teach the old 
way.
Just my two cents' plain.

On 5/22/2012 5:30 PM, Paul wrote:
> Hello everyone.  I was told that when I joined this list that a Bible question could be posted.  I've asked several individuals privately this question, but they had no answer.  The question is this: Why do most modern versions of the Bible not capitalize pronouns referring to God the Father, Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit? Yes, I know that in 1611 when the KJV was first published, they did capitalize such words and still do so today, as does the New King James Version.  Some might say rightly that words from the 17th and even the 18th centuries that were capitalized back then aren't now.  I would agree with that but, when it comes to God, the question still begs an answer: Why do modern versions of the Bible refrain from doing it.  It shows respect to God in doing so, and He demands respect, reverence and honor.  If this is an ignorant question just let it be so.  Any answer would be appreciated.  Thanks in advance for any input.  Paul
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