[blindLaw] Misunderstand In Compus Mentis?

[Thomas Dukeman]

Hello fellow legal beagles!

Maybe I am misunderstanding the legal concept, or it was improperly implied, but can someone explain in full if there are actual required standards for what is and is not considered being found In Compus Mentis and unable to stand trial? I am asking because I was listening to a true crime podcast (yes im aware they can sensationalize and/or over-dramatize things for ratings) but it got me wondering how it was that a person can be found to be of below average intelligence was of to such a degree that he did not know right from wrong can still be found fit to stand trial? Is that not the very definition of In Compus Mentis? The confusion comes from the fact that even though the case against this individual was in 2010, It was not in a legal system I am familiar with. The case I am referring to is that of Juan Carlos Rodriguez’s involvement in the murder of Dutch Immigrant Martin Verfondern in Galicia, Spain in 2010. Can anyone help me see how it was this was allowed to happen, because I feel something is definitely wrong here.

Tom

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